essay question paper upsc 2022

UPSC Essay Topic wise Question Papers of last 31 years (1993-2023) for Civil Services IAS/IPS Exam Free Download

In the UPSC mains examination, essay paper is worth 250 marks and three hours. Here is the topic wise questions from the earlier years for the benefit of civil service IAS IPS aspirants.

1.1 India Since Independence

1.2 federalism, decentralization, 1.3 administration, 1.4 judiciary, 1.5 poverty, social justice, 1.6 indian society, culture and values, 1.7 media, tv & cinema, literature, 2.1 growth vs development, 2.2 environment vs development, 2.4 sectors of economy, 3.1 values in education, 3.2 scheme implementation, 3.3 higher education, 4.1 character, honesty, ethics, 4.2 knowledge, 4.3 compassion, 4.4 truth and reality, 4.5 youth, discipline, 4.6 towards excellence, 5.1 @national politics, 5.2 @world / quote type, 5.3 empowerment overall, 5.4 compared to men, 6.1 globalization, 6.2 international org./ bilateral, 6.3 security, 6.4 history, 7.1 science and religion, 7.2 science and education, 7.3 computer and internet, 7.4 sci-tech: others, appendix: linear paper of upsc essay 2023, appendix: linear paper of upsc essay 2022, appendix: model answer pe free lecture & powerpoint, appendix: syllabus of essay paper in upsc, 1 india: democracy, administration, society, culture.

Is the Colonial mentality hindering India’s Success? -2013
In the context of Gandhiji’s views on the matter, explore, on an evolutionary scale, the terms ‘Swadhinata’, ‘Swaraj’ and ‘Dharmarajya’. Critically comment on their contemporary relevance to Indian democracy -2012
Dreams which should not let India sleep. -2015
Why should we be proud of being Indians? -2000
Whither Indian democracy? -1995
How far has democracy in India delivered the goods? -2003
What we have not learnt during fifty years of independence. -1997
What have we gained from our democratic set-up? -2001
My vision of India in 2001 a.d. -1993
Impact of the new economic measures on fiscal ties between the union and states in India. -2017
Water disputes between States in federal India. -2016
Cooperative federalism : Myth or reality. -2016
Creation of smaller states and the consequent administrative, economic and developmental implication -2011
Evaluation of panchayati raj system in India from the point of view of eradication of power to people. -2007
Water resources should be under the control of the central government. -2004
The language problem in India: its past, present and prospects. -1998
There are better practices to “best practices”. -2021
How should a civil servant conduct himself? -2003
Politics without ethics is a disaster. -1995
The VIP cult is a bane of Indian democracy -1996
Need for transparency in public administration -1996
The country’s need for a better disaster management system. -2000
Politics, bureaucracy and business – fatal triangle. -1994
We may brave human laws but cannot resist natural laws. -2017
Justice must reach the poor -2005
Judicial activism and Indian democracy. -2004
Judicial activism. -1997
A society that has more justice is a society that needs less charity. (- जिस समाज में अधिक न्याय होता है उस समाज को दान की कम आवश्यकता होती है।) – 2023
There can be no social justice without economic prosperity but economic prosperity without social justice is meaningless (बिना आर्थिक समृद्धि के सामाजिक न्याय नहीं हो सकता, किन्तु बिना सामाजिक न्याय के आर्थिक समृद्धि निरर्थक है ) -2020
Neglect of primary health care and education in India are reasons for its backwardness. -2019
The focus of health care is increasingly getting skewed towards the ‘haves’ of our society. -2009
Food security for sustainable national development -2005
Reservation, politics and empowerment. -1999
Culture is what we are, civilization is what we have (जो हम है, वह संस्कार; जो हमारे पास है, वह सभ्यता ) -2020
Indian culture today: a myth or a reality? -2000
Modernism and our traditional socio-ethical values. -2000
The composite culture of India. -1998
The Indian society at the crossroads. -1994
From traditional Indian philanthropy to the gates-buffet model-a natural progression or a paradigm shift? -2010
New cults and godmen: a threat to traditional religion -1996
Biased media is a real threat to Indian democracy. -2019
Responsibility of media in a democracy. -2002
Role of media in good governance -2008
Does Indian cinema shape our popular culture or merely reflect it? -2011
How has satellite television brought about cultural change in Indian mindsets? -2007
Is sting operation an invasion on privacy? -2014
Mass media and cultural invasion. -1999
The misinterpretation and misuse of freedom in India. -1998
Poets are the unacknowledged legislators of the world (कवि संसार के अनधिकृत रूप से विधायक होते हैं) – 2022

2 Economy, Development

Poverty anywhere is a threat to prosperity everywhere. -2018
Digital economy: A leveller or a source of economic inequality. -2016
Innovation is the key determinant of economic growth and social welfare. -2016
Near jobless growth in India: An anomaly or an outcome of economic reforms. -2016
Crisis faced in India – moral or economic. -2015
Was it the policy paralysis or the paralysis of implementation which slowed the growth of our country? -2014
GDP (Gross Domestic Product) along with GDH (Gross Domestic Happiness) would be the right indices for judging the wellbeing of a country-2013
Can capitalism bring inclusive growth? -2015
Resource management in the Indian context. -1999
Economic growth without distributive justice is bound to breed violence. -1993
Forests are the best case studies for economic excellence (आर्थिक समृद्धि हासिल करने के मामले में वन सर्वोत्तम प्रतिमान होते हैं।) – 2022
Alternative technologies for a climate change resilient India. -2018
Should a moratorium be imposed on all fresh mining in tribal areas of the country? -2010
Urbanisation and its hazards -2008
Protection of ecology and environment is essential for sustained economic development. -2006
Urbanization is a blessing in disguise. -1997
Ecological considerations need not hamper development. -1993
Globalization would finish small-scale industries in India. -2006
Multinational corporations – saviours or saboteurs -1994
Special economic zone: boon or bane -2008
Is the criticism that the ‘Public-Private-Partnership’ (PPP) model for development is more of a bane than a boon in the Indian context, justified ?-2012
Farming has lost the ability to be a source of subsistence for majority of farmers in India. -2017
BPO boom in India. -2007
Tourism: Can this be the next big thing for India? -2014
Are our traditional handicrafts doomed to a slow death? -2009

3 Education

Education is what remains after one has forgotten what one has learned in – school. (- शिक्षा वह है जो विद्यालय में विधालय में सीखी गई बातों को भूल जाने के बाद भी शेष रह जाती है।)
Destiny of a nation is shaped in its classrooms. -2017
Education without values, as useful as it is, seems rather to make a man more clever devil-2015
Independent thinking should be encouraged right form the childhood. -2007
Are the standardized tests good measure of academic ability or progress? -2014
Irrelevance of the classroom. -2001
Is the growing level of competition good for the youth? -2014
Literacy is growing very fast, but there is no corresponding growth in education. -1996
Is an egalitarian society possible by educating the masses ? -2008
What is real education? -2005
“Education for all” campaign in India: myth or reality. -2006
Restructuring of Indian education system. -1995
Privatization of higher education in India. -2002
Credit – based higher education system – status, opportunities and challenges -2011

4 Quote based, Philosophy, Ethics

A smile is the chosen vehicle for all ambiguities (हर असमंजस के लिए मुस्कराहट ही चुनिन्दा साधन है) – 2022
Philosophy of wantlessness is a Utopian, while materialism is a chimera. -2021
Your perception of me is a reflection of you; my reaction to you is an awareness of me. -2021
Simplicity is the ultimate sophistication (सरलता चरम परिष्करण है ) -2020
Ships don’t sink because of water around them ships sink because of water that gets into them (जहाज अपने चारों तरफ के पानी के वजह से नहीं डूबा करते, जहाज पानी के अंदर समां जाने की वजह से डूबता हैं ) -2020
Life is a long journey between being human and being humane. (मनुष्य होने और मानव बनने के बीच का लम्बा सफर ही जीवन है)-2020
Values are not what humanity is, but what humanity ought to be -2019
Best for an individual is not necessarily best for the society -2019
Courage to accept and dedication to improve are two keys to success -2019
Wisdom finds truth -2019
A people that values its privileges above its principles loses both. -2018
Customary morality cannot be a guide to modem file. -2018
Need brings greed, if greed increases it spoils breed. -2016
Character of an institution is reflected in its leader. -2015
With greater power comes greater responsibility. -2014
Words are sharper than the two-edged sword. -2014
Attitude makes, habit makes character and character makes a man. -2007
He would reigns within himself and folds his passions and desires and fears is more than a king. -1993
Thinking is like a game, it does not begin unless there is an opposite team. (- सोच एक खेल की तरह है, यह तब तक शुरू नहीं होता है जब तक कि एक विपरीत टीम/पक्ष न हो।) – 2023
Mathematics is the music of reason. (- गणित ज्ञान का संगीत है।) – 2023
The real is rational and the rational is real. -2021
Mindful manifesto is the catalyst to a tranquil self (विचारपरक संकल्प स्वयं के शांतचित्त रहने का उत्प्रेरक है )-2020
‘The past’ is a permanent dimension of human consciousness and values. -2018
A good life is one inspired by love and guided by knowledge. -2018
There is nothing either good or bad but thinking makes it so. -2003
Disinterested intellectual curiosity is the lifeblood of civilisation. -1995
Joy is the simplest form of gratitude. -2017
Compassion is the basic of all morality of the world -1993
Lending hands to someone is better than giving a dole. -2015
Be the change you want to see in others (Gandhi)-2013
Just because you have a choice, it does not mean that any of them has to be right (केवल इसलिए कि आपके पास विकल्प हैं, इसका यह अर्थ कदापि नहीं है कि उनमें से किसी को भी ठीक होना ही होगा) – 2022
Reality does not conform to the ideal, but confirms it. -2018
Truth is lived, not taught -1996
When money speaks, the truth is silent. -1995
Search for truth can only be a spiritual problem. -2002
The time to repair the roof is when the sun is shining (छप्पर मरम्मत करने का समय तभी होता है, जब धूप खिली हुई हो) – 2022
You cannot step twice in the same river (आप उसी नदी में दोबारा नहीं उतर सकते) – 2022
Discipline means success, anarchy means ruin -2008
Youth is a blunder, manhood a struggle, old age a regret -1994
If youth knew, if age could. -2002
Youth culture today. -1999
Fifty Golds in Olympics: Can this be a reality for India? -2014
Visionary decision-making happens at the intersection of intuition and logic. (- दूरदर्शी निर्णय तभी लिए जाते है अंतर्ज्ञान और तर्क का परस्पर मेल होता है।) – 2023
Not all who wander are lost. (- भटकने वाले सभी गुम नहीं हो जाते।) – 2023
Inspiration for creativity springs from the effort to look for the magical in the mundane (- रचनात्मकता की प्रेरणा अलौकिक ता में चमत्कार ढूंढने के प्रयास से उपजति है) – 2023
A ship in harbour is safe, but that is not what ship is for (जहाज बन्दरगाह के भीतर सुरक्षित होता है, परन्तु इसके लिए तो वह होता नहीं है) – 2022
Quick but steady wins the race. -2015
Useless life is an early death. -1994
Our deeds determine us, as much as we determine our deeds. -1995
The paths of glory lead but to the grave. -2002
The pursuit of excellence. -2001

5 Women empowerment

Greater political power alone will not improve women’s plight. -1997
Women’s reservation bill would usher in empowerment for women in India. -2006
The new emerging women power: the ground realities. -1995
Hand that rocks the cradle rules the world. -2021
If women ruled the world -2005
The hand that rocks the cradle -2005
Patriarchy is the least noticed yet the most significant structure of social inequality (पितृ-सत्ता की व्यवस्था नजर मैं बहुत काम आने के बावजूद सामाजिक विषमता की सबसे प्रभावी संरचना है) -2020
Fulfilment of ‘new woman’ in India is a myth. -2017
If development is not engendered, it is endangered. -2016
Whither women’s emancipation? -2004
Empowerment alone cannot help our women. -2001
Women empowerment: challenges and prospects. -1999
Woman is god’s best creation. -1998
Men have failed: let women take over. -1993
Managing work and home – is the Indian working woman getting a fair deal ?-2012

6 International issues, Internal Security, History

South Asian societies are woven not around the state, but around their plural cultures and plural identities. -2019
Modernisation and westernisation are not identical concepts. -1994
‘globalization’ vs. ‘nationalism’ -2009
National identity and patriotism -2008
Globalizations and its impact on Indian culture. -2004
The masks of new imperialism. -2003
As civilization advances culture declines. -2003
The implications of globalization for India. -2000
My vision of an ideal world order. -2001
India’s contribution to world wisdom. -1998
The world of the twenty-first century. -1998
Preparedness of our society for India’s global leadership role. -2010
Technology as the silent factor in international relations (अंतर्राष्ट्रीय संबंधों मैं मौन करक के रूप मैं प्रौद्योगिकी) -2020
Has the Non-Alignment Movement (NAM) lost its relevance in a multipolar world ? -2017
Restructuring of UNO reflect present realities -1996
The global order: political and economic -1993
India’s role in promoting ASEAN co-operation. -2004
Importance of Indo-US nuclear agreement -2006
Management of Indian border dispute is a complex task. -2018
In the Indian context , both human intelligence and technical intelligence are crucial in combating terrorism -2011
Are we a ‘soft’ state ? -2009
Good fences make good neighbours -2009
Is autonomy the best answer to combat balkanization? -2007
Terrorism and world peace -2005
True religion cannot be misused. -1997
History repeats itself, first as tragedy, second as farce. -2021
Geography may remain the same ; history need not. -2010

7 Science-Technology

Spirituality and scientific temper. -2003
Science and Mysticism : Are they compatible ?-2012
What is research, but a blind date with knowledge! -2021
Modern technological education and human values. -2002
Value-based science and education. -1999
The march of science and the erosion of human values. -2001
The process of self-discovery has now been technologically outsourced. -2021
Rise of Artificial Intelligence: the threat of jobless future or better job opportunities through reskilling and upskilling. -2019
‘Social media’ is inherently a selfish medium. -2017
Cyberspace and Internet : Blessing or curse to the human civilization in the long run -2016
Increasing computerization would lead to the creation of a dehumanized society. -2006
The cyberworld: its charms and challenges. -2000
Computer: the harbinger of silent revolution. -1993
Technology cannot replace manpower. -2015
Science and technology is the panacea for the growth and security of the nation-2013
The modern doctor and his patients. -1997
The lure of space. -2004

Section-A (write any one)

Thinking is like a game, it does not begin unless there is an opposite team. (- सोच एक खेल की तरह है, यह तब तक शुरू नहीं होता है जब तक कि एक विपरीत टीम/पक्ष न हो।)
Visionary decision-making happens at the intersection of intuition and logic. (- दूरदर्शी निर्णय तभी लिए जाते है अंतर्ज्ञान और तर्क का परस्पर मेल होता है।)
Not all who wander are lost. (- भटकने वाले सभी गुम नहीं हो जाते।)
Inspiration for creativity springs from the effort to look for the magical in the mundane (- रचनात्मकता की प्रेरणा अलौकिक ता में चमत्कार ढूंढने के प्रयास से उपजति है)

Section-B (write any one)

Girls are weighed down by restrictions, boys with demands – two equally harmful disciplines. (-लड़कियां बंदिशों के तथा लड़के अपेक्षा के बोझ तले दबे हुए होते हैं दोनों ही समान रूप से हानिकारक व्यवस्थाएं हैं।)
Mathematics is the music of reason. (- गणित ज्ञान का संगीत है।)
A society that has more justice is a society that needs less charity. (- जिस समाज में अधिक न्याय होता है उस समाज को दान की कम आवश्यकता होती है।)

Answer one-one essay from each section in 1000-1200 words

History is a series of victories won by the scientific man over the romantic man (इतिहास वैज्ञानिक मनुष्य के रूमानी मनुष्य पर विजय हासिल करने का एक सिलसिला है।) – 2022
A ship in harbour is safe, but that is not what ship is for (जहाज बन्दरगाह के भीतर सुरक्षित होता है, परन्तु इसके लिए तो वह होता नहीं है) & 2022
Just because you have a choice, it does not mean that any of them has to be right (केवल इसलिए कि आपके पास विकल्प हैं, इसका यह अर्थ कदापि नहीं है कि उनमें से किसी को भी ठीक होना ही होगा) – 2022

Essay: Candidates may be required to write essays on multiple topics. They will be expected to keep closely to the subject of the essay to arrange their ideas in orderly fashion, and to write concisely. Credit will be given for effective and exact expression.

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UPSC Mains 2022 Essay Question Paper

UPSC Mains 2022 Essay Question Paper - Download PDF

The UPSC Mains Essay paper was conducted on Friday, 16th September 2022, in the forenoon session (9 AM to 12 PM). The UPSC Mains 2022 is set to take place on 16, 17, 18, 24 and 25th September 2022.

For other papers in the Mains segment of UPSC, candidates can further check the UPSC Mains 2022 Question Papers page at their own behest.

UPSC Mains Essay Questions 2022 – Download PDF Here

UPSC Mains 2022 Essay Questions

The UPSC Essay paper segment consists of two sections. They are Section A and Section B. Both sections have about four questions each. The candidates have to choose one topic from each section, thus having to answer 2 essay questions in total.

The word limit for each question is to be within the range of 1000-1200 words. The mark for each question is 125, thus, the total allotted marks are about 250.

The paper will be included in the merit ranking.

The Essay Topics asked in the UPSC Mains 2022 are given below:

Forests are the best case studies for economic excellence.
Pets are the unacknowledged legislators of the world.
History is a series of victories won by the scientific man over the romantic man.
A ship in harbour is safe, but that is not what ship is for.

Section – B

1. The time to repair the roof is when the sun is shining.

2. You cannot step twice in the same river.

3. A smile is the chosen vehicle for all ambiguities.

4. Just because you have a choice, it does not mean that any of them has to be right.

Candidates can also refer to the UPSC Mains 2021 Essay Questions , in the given link.

Some of the useful links for the candidates to prepare for an essay paper are as follows:

The candidates may be required to write essays on multiple topics. While answering the essay questions, the aspirants are expected to keep close to the subject of the essay to arrange their ideas in an orderly manner and to write concisely. It is important to remember that credit will be given for effective and exact expression.

To download the question paper PDFs of General Studies papers, the aspirants can check the links below:

The candidates can also download the question paper PDFs of UPSC Mains 2022 Optional Paper from the linked article.

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Marks : 250 (125x2)
Duration: 3 hours
Exam Date: 16-09-2022
Year : 2022
Exam Date :

Write Two Essays, choosing One from each of the Sections A and B, in about 1000-1200 words each.

Section-a (125 marks) - choose any one essay, q-1.forests are the best case studies for economic excellence., q-2.poets are the unacknowledged legislators of the world., q-3.history is a series of victories won by the scientific man over the romantic man., q-4.a ship in harbour is safe, but that is not what ship is for., download upsc mains essay (compulsory) papers pdf, section-b (125 marks)- choose any one essay, q-1.the time to repair the roof is when the sun is shining., q-2.you cannot step twice in the same river., q-3.a smile is the chosen vehicle for all ambiguities., q-4.just because you have a choice, it does not mean that any of them has to be right., click here to download full papers pdf, (e-book) upsc mains essay (compulsory) papers ( 2000-2020 ) pdf, download upsc mains gs 10 year papers pdf, download upsc pre gs 10 year papers pdf, download upsc mains gs solved papers pdf, printed study material for ias mains general studies, printed study material for ias mains essay, << go back to main page.

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[UPSC Mains 2022] ESSAY PAPER- UPSC CIVIL SERVICES MAINS EXAM (CSE) 2022

September 16, 2022

Important Updates , UPSC MAINS 2022 QUESTION PAPERS

1) Forests are the best case studies for economic excellence.

2) Poets are the unacknowledged legislators of the world.

3) History is a series of victorious won by the scientific man over the romantic man.

4) A ship in harbor is safe, but that is not what a ship is for.

1) The time to repair the roof is when the sun is shining.

2) You cannot step twice in the same river.

3) A smile is the chosen vehicle for all ambiguities.

4) Just because you have a choice, it does not mean that any of them has to be right.

UPSC Mains 2022 Essay Paper Discussion – By Sunil Oberoi Sir Retd. IAS

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Courses test series, our selections, essay question paper: upsc cse mains 2022.

Compiled by Lukmaan IAS
September 16, 2022
Essay Paper Analysis , UPSC Essay Paper-2022 , UPSC Paper Analysis , UPSC PAPER-2022

Table of Contents

1. Forests are the best case studies for economic excellence
2. Poets are the unacknowledged legislators of the world
3. History is a series of victories won by the scientific man over the romantic man
4. A ship in harbour is safe, but that is not what ship is for
5. The time to repair the roof is when the sun is shining
6. You cannot step twice in the same river
7. A smile is the chosen vehicle for all ambiguities
8. Just because you have a choice, it does not mean that any of them has to be right

SOCIOLOGY OPTIONAL QUESTION PAPER : UPSC CSE Mains-2022

Public admin. (paper-ii) question paper : upsc cse mains-2022, public admin. (paper-i) question paper : upsc cse mains-2022, gs paper-4 upsc cse mains-2022.

UPSC IAS Mains 2022 – Essay and GS Paper 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 Question Papers

ForumIAS announcing GS Foundation Program for UPSC CSE 2025-26 from 19 April. Click Here for more information.

ForumIAS Answer Writing Focus Group (AWFG) for Mains 2024 commencing from 24th June 2024. The Entrance Test for the program will be held on 28th April 2024 at 9 AM. To know more about the program visit: https://forumias.com/blog/awfg2024

Dear Friends,

After 3 days of the UPSC IAS Mains 2022 examination, the essay paper and General Studies (GS) 1, 2, 3 and 4 have been conducted. Below are the PDFs of all the conducted examinations. If you want to read the questions online, you directly go on to the individual posts (given below).

UPSC Mains 2022 – Essay Question Paper PDF

UPSC Mains 2022 GS 1 Question Paper PDF

UPSC Mains 2022 GS 2 Question Paper PDF

UPSC Mains 2022 GS 3 question paper PDF

UPSC Mains 2022 GS 4 question paper PDF

[Download pdf] UPSC IAS Mains 2022 – Essay Question Paper

[Download pdf] UPSC IAS Mains 2022 – GS 1 Question Paper

[Download pdf] UPSC IAS Mains 2022 – GS 2 Question Paper

UPSC IAS Mains 2022 – GS Paper 3 Question Paper

UPSC IAS Mains 2022 – GS Paper 4 Question Paper

If you want to go through Previous Year’s Question Papers. You can visit this page .

UPSC Mains 2022 Exam Calendar

UPSC IAS Mains 2022 GS Paper 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 Question Papers

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UPSC CSE Mains Essay Paper 2022

UPSC CSE Mains Examination 2022 began from 16th September 2022 and will end on 25th September 2022.

Table of Contents

The UPSC CSE conducted by UPSC has three stages – Prelims, Mains and Interview. The UPSC Prelims 2022 was conducted on 5 th June 2022 and the results for UPSC CSE Prelims were announced on 22 nd June 2022.

UPSC CSE Mains Examination 2022 began from 16 th September 2022 and will end on 25 th September 2022

The UPSC CSE Mains Examination checks the intellectual traits and depth of understanding of candidates, rather than merely the range of their knowledge.

The UPSC Main (Written) exam would be conducted for a period of 5 days – 16th, 17th, 18th, 24th and 25th September 2022.

Candidates can check the timetable for UPSC CSE Mains Examination 2022 from the link given below.

UPSC CSE Mains Examination 2022 Timetable

UPSC CSE Mains 2022 Essay Paper Analysis

The candidates have to write two essays, one from each section. Out of 8 questions, the candidate has to choose and write on two essay topics. The candidates are expected to write the answers in about 1000-1200 words for each essay. The duration for the UPSC CSE Mains Essay paper is of 3 hours. The Essay paper was held in the morning session on 16 th September 2022 from 9 AM to 12 PM.

UPSC CSE Mains Essay Paper 2022 Questions

Forests are the best case studies for economic excellence
Poets are the unacknowledged legislators of the world
History is a series of victories won by the scientific man over the romantic man
A ship in harbour is safe, but that is not what ship is for
The time to repair the roof is when the sun is shining
You cannot step twice in the same river
A smile is the chosen vehicle for all ambiguities
Just because you have a choice, it does not mean that any of them has to be right.

The candidates can check the UPSC Mains 2022 Essay Question Paper PDF from the link given below.

UPSC CSE Mains Essay Question Paper 2022 PDF Download

Based on the analysis, here are a few opinions and reviews about the essay paper:

Most of the candidates felt that the essay paper was tough as compared to last year.
Looking at the essay paper of Mains 2022, the candidates felt that the paper was unpredictable.
Also, the veterans who are writing the Mains exam, not for the first time, felt that this year’s paper was a bit similar in nature to last year’s paper.
In general, section A would contain topics related to social issues, policymaking etc. which extensively demand quoting of a lot of factual information. Whereas, section B would have abstract or philosophical topics. But since 2021 in essay paper, both the section have philosophical or abstract topics.
Essay paper from last year is testing whether the candidates have their own thinking process which is deep, analytical and philosophical.
A few candidates felt that this paper checks the personality of the candidate, which cannot be learnt or gained overnight by studying facts from books, magazines or other sources.

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GS Paper 4 UPSC 2022 (Mains): Question Paper and Analysis

Last updated on September 19, 2022 by ClearIAS Team

UPSC conducted the General Studies Paper 4 , as part of the Civil Services Main Exam 2022 on 18-09-2022.There were 12 questions split into two sections – A and B.Case studies were included in Section B. Many questions had sub-sections.

Table of Contents

GS Paper 4 UPSC 2022: Instructions

Total Marks: 250 marks, Time duration: 3 hours.
There are 12 questions divided into two sections and printed both in ENGLISH and HINDI.
All questions are compulsory.
The number of marks carried by a question/part is printed against it.
Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the admission certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this question-cum-answer (QCA) booklet in the space provided.
No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.
Keep the word limit indicated in the questions in mind.
Any page or portion of the page left blank, must be struck off clearly.
The content of the answer is more important than its length.

General Studies Paper 4 Question Paper – UPSC Civil Services Main Exam (Written) 2022

Qn1(a). Wisdom lies in knowing what to reckon with and what to overlook. An officer being engrossed with the periphery ignoring the core issues before him is not rare in the Bureaucracy. Do you agree that such preoccupation of an administrator leads to travesty of justice to the cause of effective service delivery and good governance? Critically evaluate (150 words)

Qn2(a). The Rules and Regulations provided to all the Civil servants are same, yet there is difference in the performance. Positive minded officers are able to interpret the Rules and Regulations in favour of the case and achieve success, Whereas, negative minded officers are unable to achieve goals by interacting the same Rules and Regulations against the case. Discuss with illustrations.

(b)It is believed that adherence to ethics in human actions would ensure in smooth functioning of an organization / system. If so, what does ethics seek to promote in human life? How do how do ethical values assist in the resolution of conflicts faced by him in his day to day functioning?

Qn3. What does each of the following quotations mean to you? (a) “Ethics is knowing the difference between what you have the right to do and what is right to do. “-Potter Stewart (b) “If a country is to be corruption free and become a nation of beautiful minds, I strongly feel that there are three key societal members who can make a difference They are father, mother and teacher.”- APJ Abdul Kalam

Qn4(a)What do you understand by the term ‘good governance? How far recent initiatives in terms of e-Governance steps taken by the State have helped the beneficiaries? Discuss with suitable examples.

(b) Online methodology is being used for day-to-day meetings, institutional approvals in the administration and for teaching and learning in education sector to the extent telemedicine in the health sector is getting popular with the approval of the competent authority. No doubt it has advantages and disadvantages for both the beneficiaries and the system at large. Describe and discuss reticle issues involved in the use of the online method, particularly to the vulnerable section of the society.

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Qn5(a). Russia and Ukraine war has been going on for the last seven months. Different countries have taken independent stands and actions keeping in view their own national interests. We are all aware that war has its own impact on the different aspects of society, including human tragedy. What are those ethical issues that are crucial to be considered while launching the war and its continuation so far? Illustrate with justification the ethical issues involved in the given state of affairs.

(b) Write short notes on the following in 30 words each:

Qn7 There was another dimension which was causing him deep mental torture and agony . This pertained to his personal precarious financial health . He was a single earner in the family with two school – college going children and his old ailing mother . The heavy expenditure on education and medical was causing a big strain to his monthly pay packet . Regular EMI for housing loan taken from bank was unavoidable and any default would render him liable for severe legal action . In the above backdrop , he was hoping for some miracle to happen . There was sudden turn of events . His secretary informed that a gentleman – Subhash Verma wanted to see him as he was interested in the position of Manager which was to be filled in by him in the company . He further brought to his notice that his CV has been received through the office of the Minister of Defence . During interview of the candidate Subhash Verma , he found him technically sound , resourceful and experienced marketeer . He seemed to be well – conversant with tendering procedures and having knack of follow – up and liaising in this regard . Prabhat felt that he was better choice than the rest of the candidates who were interviewed by him in the last few days . Subhash Verma also indicated that he was in possession of the copies of the bid documents that the Unique Electronics Ltd. would be submitting the next day to the Defence Ministry for their tender . He offered to hand over those documents subject to his employment in the company on suitable terms and conditions . He made it clear that in the process , the Sterling Electric Ltd. could outbid their rival company and get the bid and hefty Defence Ministry order . He indicated that it will be win – win situation for both him and the company . Prabhat was absolutely stunned . It was a mixed feeling of shock and thrill . He was uncomfortable and perspiring . If accepted , all his problems would vanish instantly and he may be rewarded for securing the much awaited tender and thereby boosting company’s sales and financial health . He was in a fix as to the future course of action . He was wonder – struck at the guts of Subhash Verma in having surreptitiously removing his own company papers and offering to the rival company for a job . Being an experienced person , he was examining the pros and cons of the proposal / situation and he asked him to come the next day . (a) Discuss the ethical issues involved in the case . (b) Critically examin the options available to Prabhat in the above situation. (c) Which of the above would be the most appropriate for Prabhat and why?

Qn8 Ramesh is State Civil Services Officer who got the opportunity of getting posted to the capital of a border State after rendering 20 years of service . Ramesh’s mother has recently been detected cancer and has been admitted in the leading cancer hospital of the city . His two adolescent children have also got admission in one of the best public schools of the town . After settling down in his appointment as Director in the Home Department of the State , Ramesh got confidential report through intelligence sources that illegal migrants are infiltrating in the State from the neighbouring country . He decided to personally carry out surprise check of the border posts along with his Home Department team . To his surprise , he caught red – handed two families of 12 members infiltrated with the connivance of the security personnel at the border posts . On further inquiry and investigation , it was found that after the migrants from neighbouring country infiltrate , their documentation like Aadhaar Card , Ration Card and Voter Card are also forged and they are made to settle down in a particular area of the State . Ramesh prepared the detailed and comprehensive report and submitted to the Additional Secretary of the State . However , he has summoned by the Additional Home Secretary after a week and was instructed to withdraw the report . The Additional Home Secretary informed Ramesh that the report submitted by him has not been appreciated by the higher authorities . He further cautioned him that if he fails to withdraw the confidential report , he will not only be posted out from the prestigious appointment from the State capital but his further promotion which is due in near future will also get in jeopardy . (a) What are the options available to Ramesh as the Director of the Home Department of the bordering State ? (b) What option should Ramesh adopt and why ? (c) Critically evaluate each of the options . (d) What are the ethical dilemmas being faced by Ramesh ? (e) What policy measures would you suggest to combat the menace of infiltration of illegal migrants from the neighbouring country ?

Qn9 The Supreme Court has banned mining in the Aravalli Hills to stop degradation of the forest cover and to maintain ecological balance . However , the stone mining was still prevalent in the border district of the affected State with connivance of certain corrupt forest officials and politicians . Young and dynamic SP who was recently posted in the affected district promised to himself to stop this menace . In one of his surprise checks with his team , he found loaded truck with stone trying to escape the mining area . He tried to stop the truck but the truck driver overrun the police officer , killing him on the spot and thereafter managed to flee . Police filed FIR but no breakthrough was achieved in the case for almost three months . Ashok who was the Investigative Journalist working with leading TV channel , suo moto started investigating the case . Within one month , Ashok got breakthrough by interacting with local people , stone mining mafia and government officials , He prepared his investigative story and presented to the CMD of the TV channel . He exposed in his investigative report the complete nexus of stone mafia working with blessing of corrupt police and civil officials and politicians . The politician who was involved in the mafia was no one else but local MLA who was considered to be very close to the Chief Minister . After going through the investigative report , the CMD advised Ashok to drop the idea of making the story public through electronic media . He informed that the local MLA was not only the relative of the owner of the TV channel but also had unofficially 20 percent share in the channel . The CMD further informed Ashok that his further promotion and hike in pay will be taken care of in addition the soft loan of 10 lakhs which he has taken from the TV channel for his son’s chronic disease will be suitably adjusted if he hands over the investigative report to him . (a) What are the options available with Ashok to cope up with the situation ? (b) Critically evaluate / examine each of the options identified by Ashok . (c) What are the ethical dilemmas being faced by Ashok ? (d) Which of the options , do you think , would be the most appropriate for Ashok to adopt and why ? (e) In the above scenario , what type of training would you suggest for police officers posted to such districts where stone mining illegal activities are rampant ?

Qn10 You have done MBA from a reputed institution three years back but could not get campus placement due to COVID – 19 generated recession . However , after a lot of persuasion and series of competitive tests including written and interview , you managed to get a job in a leading shoe company You have aged parents who are dependent and staying with you . You also recently got married after getting this decent job . You were allotted the Inspection Section which is responsible for clearing the final product . In first one year , you learnt your job well and was appreciated for your performance by the management . The company is doing good business for last five years in domestic market and this year it is decided even to export to Europe and Gulf countries . However , one large consignment to Europe was rejected by their Inspecting Team due to certain poor quality and was sent back . The top management ordered that ibid consignment to be cleared for the domestic market . As a part of Inspecting Team , you observed the glaring poor quality and brought to the knowledge of the Team Commander . However , the top management advised all the members of the team to overlook these defects as the management cannot bear such a huge loss . Rest of the team members except you promptly signed and cleared the consignment for domestic market , overlooking glaring defects . You again brought to the knowledge of the Team Commander that such consignment , if cleared even for domestic market , will tarnish the image and feputation of the company and will be counter – productive in the long run . However , you were further.advised by the top management that if you do not clear the consignment , the company will not hesitate to terminate your services citing certain innocuous reasons.

GS4 Question Paper Analysis

GS Paper 4 deals with Ethics, Integrity, and Aptitude . This is a dynamic paper – with multiple dimensions.

The paper really checked the quick-decision making skills and overall aptitude of the candidate for the job of a future civil servant.

Regarding case studies, most were connected to an ethical angle. However, it was not easy to satisfactorily answer case studies within the time constraints.

Important Take-Aways from the GS Paper 4 UPSC 2022 (Mains) – Question Paper

This paper stressed the importance of conceptual understanding in certain crucial areas like Ethics, Values, Aptitude etc.

Questions based on quotes were asked. Many questions focused on seeking examples from candidates – rather than theory. Examples will be game-changer. Topics like good governance, Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR), Whistleblowing, Rule of law were asked.

We recommend all aspirants go through the ClearIAS online notes on Ethics, Integrity, and Aptitude .

Read the UPSC syllabus and previous year’s question papers multiple times. Prepare self-notes on every keyword (Eg: Crisis of conscience – which got repeated again).

There are no major surprises this year for those candidates who had carefully analysed the previous year’s UPSC question papers . This year’s paper followed more or less the previous year’s trends.

The Ethics paper should be taken seriously to score high. It needs a different kind of preparation. Along with conceptual knowledge, the right practice and time managment are also crucial for success.

What do you think of this year’s General Studies Paper 4 questions? What are your comments about this paper?

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Essay Paper (UPSC CSE Mains 2022)

UPSC CSE Mains 2022 Essay Paper was conducted on 16 th September 2022. Students can see the question paper here.

Watch Live Discussion of UPSC CSE Essay Paper by Shabbir Sir: 16th September 2022, 6 P.M. Onwards

Instructions

Write two essays choosing, choosing one topic from each of Sections A and B, in about 1000-1200 words each: (125×2=250)

Forests are the best case studies for economic excellence.
Poets are the unacknowledged legislators of the world.
History is a series of victories won by the scientific man over the romantic man.
A ship in the harbor is safe, but that is not what a ship is for.
The time to repair the roof is when the sun is shining.
You cannot step twice in the same river.
A smile is the chosen vehicle for all ambiguities.
Just because you have a choice, it does not mean that any of them have to be right.

Click for UPSC CSE Mains 2021 Paper – In-Depth Analysis

Table of Contents

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Q1: what is the format of the essay paper in upsc cse mains 2022.

A1: The Essay Paper consists of two sections, each with four essay topics. Candidates are required to choose one topic from each section and write two essays in a three-hour duration. The word limit for each essay is 1,000-1,200 words.

Q2: How are essays evaluated in the UPSC CSE Mains 2022 Essay Paper?

A2: Essays are evaluated based on several criteria, including clarity of expression, coherence, depth of understanding, critical analysis, and the candidate’s ability to present arguments effectively. The examiner also looks for a balanced perspective, originality, and the candidate’s awareness of current events and issues.

Q3: Can I write the Essay Paper in regional languages in UPSC CSE Mains 2022?

A3: No, the Essay Paper must be written in the medium authorized in the admission certificate, which is either English or Hindi. Answers in any other medium will not be evaluated.

Q4: Is it necessary to provide examples and illustrations in essays?

A4: Yes, providing relevant examples and illustrations is crucial in essay writing. It helps in supporting arguments, making the essay more convincing, and showcasing the candidate’s understanding of the topic. However, excessive use of examples without a coherent discussion may be counterproductive.

Q5: Can I carry a rough sheet for brainstorming before writing the essay in UPSC CSE Mains 2022?

A5: No, candidates are not allowed to carry any material, including rough sheets, into the examination hall. All rough work should be done in the answer booklets provided by the examination center. Candidates are advised to manage their time effectively and plan their essays before starting to write.

In case you still have your doubts, contact us on 9811333901.

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UPSC Civil Services Mains 2022 Essay Paper

UPSC Mains Essay Paper 2022: The Union Public Service Commission started the UPSC Civil Services Main Exam 2022 on September 16, 2022. The UPSC mains exam started on September 16, 2022 , and will be held on 17, 18, 24, and 25, 2022, at various locations around the country. GeeksforGeeks have brought the UPSC Mains Essay Paper 2022 to make your exam preparation perfect.

The highest score in the Mains Written level is crucial since 7 out of 9 papers are counted for merit ranking. Preliminary level marks, on the other hand, are not counted for merit ranking. As a result, the candidate’s attention should not only be on passing the exam but also on obtaining the best and highest possible grades.

To gain a notion of Important Essay Topics for UPSC 2023 , one needs at least to look at the previous seven years of UPSC Essay Topics. Practicing the UPSC Essay Topics of Previous Years helps throughout the UPSC Mains exam, and the aspirant may ace the essay paper with enough preparation.

UPSC 2022 Mains Essay Question Paper:

The UPSC Essay paper is divided into two portions. Section A and Section B are the two. Each segment has four questions. Candidates must select one topic from each section, resulting in a total of two essay questions.

The word count for each question should be between 1000 and 1200 . Each question is worth 125 marks , thus the total number of marks is 250. The question paper will be evaluated on merit.

The Essay Topics asked in the UPSC Mains 2022 are given below:

1) Forests are the best case studies for economic excellence.

2) Poets are the unacknowledged legislators of the world.

3) History is a series of victorious won by the scientific man over the romantic man.

4) A ship in harbor is safe, but that is not what a ship is for.

1) The time to repair the roof is when the sun is shining.

2) You cannot step twice in the same river.

3) A smile is the chosen vehicle for all ambiguities.

4) Just because you have a choice, it does not mean that any of them has to be right.

Aspirants can evaluate and plan their approach for the Civil Services Examination’s Mains level based on the question paper of 2022. UPSC Mains 2022 Essay Paper UPSC Mains 2022 GS Paper 1 UPSC Mains 2022 GS Paper 2 UPSC Mains 2022 GS Paper 3 UPSC Mains 2022 GS Paper 4

UPSC Mains Essay Previous Year Question Paper:

UPSC Mains Essay Paper 2021
UPSC Mains Essay Paper 2020
UPSC Mains Essay Paper 2019
UPSC Mains Essay Paper 2018
UPSC Mains Essay Paper 2017
UPSC Mains Essay Paper 2016

How to Score Marks on UPSC Mains Essay Topics?

Writing provides insight into your cognitive process. This is precisely what the examiner looks at when reading your answer script. An essay is essentially a well-organized collection of ideas on any given topic. Mastering the skill of getting the highest possible grade on a test involves a lot of effort and dedication. The UPSC Mains essay is more than just a test of factual knowledge; it is also a test of creativity and confidence.

Follow these strategies to get high marks in the UPSC Mains Essay paper:

1. Choose your topic carefully

The UPSC Essay paper 2022 is divided into two portions, and applicants must write one essay from each area. Both essays are worth 125 points and are 1000-1200 words long. Before choosing a topic, consider if it is too contentious or whether you have enough facts to write about it.

2. Think about the subject

Once you’ve decided on a topic, think about it and jot down the essential keywords you’ll use in your essay. Try to take a multifaceted approach to the essay and stick to a decent format of introduction, body, and conclusion.

3. Structure the essay in a proper manner

The opening paragraph is the heart of the essay and should provide a clear overview of the issue. The main focus should be on your thoughts on the subject. The primary body of the essay should be broken into little paragraphs that are interconnected nicely. The essay’s wording should be simple, clear, and easy to grasp.

The UPSC Mains essay assesses your critical thinking abilities rather than your use of fancy language. Facts and statistics should be supplied whenever necessary. The use of quotations and sayings strengthens the essays. The final paragraph should speak for itself. Candidates should aim to write the essay in an unbiased or balanced manner.

Economic Growth, women empowerment, art & culture, media & society, social justice or poverty, education, renowned quotes from notable individuals , and other themes are among the UPSC Essay Topics.

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UPSC 2022 Question Paper with Detailed Explanation of Prelims

Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) conducted the Civil Services Examination (CSE) Prelims Exam on June 5, 2022. Check UPSC 2022 Question Paper with explanation here in this article.

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UPSC 2022 Question Paper

The Civil Services Examination (CSE) Prelims 2022 was conducted on June 5, 2022, by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC). Aspirants looking for the Prelims 2022 question papers may not go anywhere else. The UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2022 for GS Paper I has been provided here by Study IQ with the answer key and detailed explanation. To assess their performance, candidates can check The UPSC Prelims 2022 Question Papers.

Additionally, we have made available the UPSC Prelims 2022 Answer Key, which was created by CSE Experts. This will enable applicants to evaluate their performance and start preparing for the UPSC Mains Exam as necessary.

UPSC 2022 Prelims Question Paper PDF

Union Public Service Commission administers the UPSC Civil Services Examination annually for selecting candidates for different administrative services at the centre level. The first stage of the exam is prelims which is being conducted in two parts on the same day.

UPSC GS Paper I
UPSC GS Paper II ( CSAT )

Each paper lasts for two hours and carries 200 points. Both papers will receive negative marks. The IAS Prelims Syllabus should be reviewed by candidates to get a better understanding of the topics covered in the examination. Check the download link below:

UPSC 2022 Mains Question Paper PDF

Nine traditional essay-style questions covering a range of subjects are included in the UPSC Mains examination, with two of them functioning as qualifying questions. The final ranking is based on the grades received in each of the obligatory papers (Papers I through VI) as well as the interview and personality test. The two qualifying papers and the seven papers that earned merit rankings in the UPSC Main Examination are listed below:

UPSC 2022 Question Paper With Explanation

The objective paper, with 100 questions and 200 marks, is part of the UPSC Prelims Paper 1. The paper covers topics including science and technology, environment and ecology, politics, economy , history , and geography . The UPSC cut-off and whether a candidate has qualified for the first stage of the exam to write the UPSC Mains will be determined by the total scores of the UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper 1. The UPSC Prelims 2022 Questions have been mentioned below.

Q1. “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following ?

(a) Asian Development Bank

(b) International Monetary Fund

(d) World Bank

Explanation:

Option (b) is correct: Both, the “Rapid Financing Instrument” and the “Rapid Credit Facility”, are assistive credit lending facilities for Low-Income Countries ( LICs ) provided by the International Monetary Fund ( IMF ).

Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI): It is a lending facility which provides rapid financial assistance. It is available to all member countries facing an urgent Balance of Payments ( BoP ) need. It is Flexible : It is a financial support more flexible to address the diverse needs of all the member countries and can be used in a wide range of circumstances. Assistance in the form of purchase : Financial assistance under the RFI is provided in the form of outright purchases without the need for a full fledged program or any reviews by the IMF. It is for richer economies : It is usually subscribed by non-PRGT eligible countries (particularly with richer economies).
Rapid Credit Facility (RCF): This instrument is similar to the RFI except it provides rapid concessional financial assistance to low-income countries ( LICs ) who are facing BoP crisis. Made for Crisis : It was created under the Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust ( PRGT ) proposed in 1999 as part of a broader reform to make the IMF’s financial support more flexible and better tailored to the needs of crisis ridden countries. It is limited : Access under the RCF is subject to annual and cumulative limits, with higher access limits applying for the large natural disaster window. It is for poorer economies : It is usually subscribed by PRGT eligible countries (particularly with poorer economies

Economy > External Sector

Difficulty-Medium

Analysis- Factual and analytical

Question Type- Current Affairs/Static

Q2. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements :

An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.
An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: Appreciation in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate ( NEER ) increases the value of domestic currency relative to the weighted average of a basket foreign currencies (typically 6 major foreign currencies).
Statement 2 is incorrect: Real Effective Exchange Rate ( REER ) is a nation’s NEER but adjusted for inflation in the home country. Appreciation in REER would mean domestic currency getting stronger against foreign currencies. This would drive the cost of exports higher making them more expensive. This would result in a decline in competitiveness.
Statement 3 is correct: REER is the NEER after factoring in relative inflation (consumer price-based index). So when domestic inflation rises so does the difference between NEER and REER.

Economy > Banking and Monetary Policy

Difficulty – Easy

Analysis – Conceptual

Question Type – Static

Q3. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements :

If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation:

Buying and selling Government Securities ( G-Sec ) is part of RBI’s Open Market Operations to manage and control circulation of liquidity (money) in the economy. Through such operations any central bank of any country manages inflation and interest rates in its respective economy.
Statement 1 is incorrect: If the inflation is too high, the RBI would sell G-Sec to absorb excess liquidity from the market and reduce its circulation to drive down the demand in the absence of excess money.
Statement 2 is correct: When rupee depreciated in the international market against the Dollar, the RBI would sell dollars in the market to increase its supply in relation to the rupee. Hence, save the currency from further depreciation.
Statement 3 is correct: If interest rates in the USA or European Union fall in comparison to interest rates and rate of return in the Indian market, then Foreign Institutional Investors ( FII ) are likely to invest their money in Indian markets for greater returns. In such a case the RBI would buy dollars from the market and increase the supply of the Indian Rupees to keep investing in the Indian economy competitive and attractive.

Question Type – Static

Q4. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the statements :

It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Both statements are correct: The Common Framework for debt treatment is an initiative beyond G20’s Debt Service Suspension Initiative ( DSSI ) also endorsed by the G20, together with the Paris Club to support, in a structural manner, Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt. It is a way to temporarily ease the financing constraints for these countries and free up scarce money that they can instead use to mitigate the human and economic impact of the Covid-19 crisis.

Economy > External Sector

Difficulty – Medium

Analysis – Factual

Question Type – Current Affairs

Q5. With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”?

Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs.
IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.
The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.
Inflation-Indexed Bonds are financial instruments that attempt to protect the bonds’ purchasing power by tying interest and principal payments to an index of price changes.
Statement 1 is correct: The government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBS as the government can influence rate of inflation through its policies and thus changing the underlying variables of IIBs.
Statement 2 is correct: Return on the IIBs are linked to the WPI, where interest rates are provided with protection against inflation by paying fixed coupon rate on the principle adjusted against inflation. This way investors are protected from uncertainty regarding inflation.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The bonds do not receive any special tax benefits. Income tax rates are applied on these bonds beyond the prescribed limit.

Economy > Public Finance and Fiscal Policy

Q6. With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places.
The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanations:

Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) Rules, 2020 define e-commerce entity (also foreign owned) as any person who owns, operates or manages digital or electronic facility or platform for electronic commerce.
Statement 1 is incorrect: As it is clear from the above definition, an e-commerce entity does not include a seller offering its services or goods for sale on a marketplace.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) (Amendment) Rules, 2021, has specified that an e-commerce marketplace entity shall not sell any goods owned or controlled by it on such e-commerce marketplace platform. All the sellers on the platform shall only be third party sellers, and no e-commerce store can be run on the e-commerce marketplace platform. Hence e commerce platform cannot own big sellers on their platform.

Economy > Applied Economics

Difficulty – Hard

Analysis – Factual and Conceptual

Question Type – Current Affair

Q7. Which of the following activities constitute a real sector in the economy?

Farmers harvesting their crops
Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics
A commercial bank lending money to a trading company Rupee
A corporate body issuing Denominated Bonds overseas

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

General Government Sector: Influences the quantity of money in the economy through its operations.
Real Sector: It is the economy’s money holding sector.
Financial Sector: It is the economy’s money issuing sector
The real sector of an economy is the key section as activities of this sector persuade economic output and is represented by those economic segments that are essential for the progress of GDP of the economy. Option (a) is correct: Real Sector refers to real economic transactions of an economy.
Non-financial corporations
Financial corporations
General government
Rest of the world

Economy > Basics of Economics

Difficulty – Easy

Q8. Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India ?

An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment
A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment
An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India
A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India
Option (d) is correct: Indirect transfers refer to situations where when foreign entities own shares or assets in India, the shares of such foreign entities are transferred instead of a direct transfer of the underlying assets in India.
The term has its origins in the Income Tax Amendment Act 2012 . This act introduced the concept of ‘retrospective taxation’ in the wake of a deal by Vodafone Ltd. in 2007 . As per the new amendment, Indirect Transfers were taxed. The amendments made by the 2012 Act clarified that if a company is registered or incorporated outside India, its shares will be deemed to be or have always been situated in India if they derive their value substantially from the assets located in India. As a result, the persons who sold such shares of foreign companies before the enactment of the Act (i.e., May 28, 2012) also became liable to pay tax on the income earned from such sale.
This policy of retrospective taxation dissuaded investors from investing in India. However, this provision was retracted in 2021 , hence the ‘retrospective taxation’ was nullified.

Difficulty – Medium

Analysis – Conceptual/Analytical

Question Type – Current Affairs/Static

Q9. With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure.
Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Capital Expenditures (CapEx) are expenses used by a company to acquire, upgrade, and maintain physical assets such as property, plants, buildings, technology, or equipment. For example, Costs to upgrade or purchase software, investing in new technology and computer equipment, are considered part of Capital Expenditure.
Revenue Expenditures include the expenses required to meet the ongoing operational costs of running a business, and thus are essentially the same as Operating Expenses (OPEX) . It can be defined as the summation of all expenses incurred by a business through the course of production of its goods and services.
Statement 1 is correct: Costs to upgrade or purchase software, investing in new technology and computer equipment, are considered part of Capital expenditure.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Both Debt Financing and Equity Financing are considered as part of capital receipts for the company, as capital receipts are receipts that create liabilities or reduce financial assets. Funds from these would be used by the company for capital expenditure such as to grow or expand its operations .

Economy > Budget

Analysis – Conceptual

Q10. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements :

A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

Household Financial Savings refer to currency, bank deposits, debt securities, mutual funds, pension funds, insurance, and investments in small savings schemes by households.
Public Debt is classified into internal and external debt. Internal debt consists of marketable debt and non-marketable debt. Marketable debt comprises Government dated securities and Treasury Bills, issued through auctions .
Statement 1 is correct: The net household financial savings was 11.5 percent of GNDI (gross national disposable income) in 202021. A part of this financial saving goes toward government borrowing . The government borrows from the market through various measures.
Statement 2 is correct: As at end-March 2021, outstanding amounts under dated securities stood at 71.7 lakh crore (36.3 percent of GDP) and accounted for 68.1 per cent of the total Public Debt .

Q11. Consider the following statements :

Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(b) 1, 2 and 4

Statement 1 is correct: A committee under the chairmanship of H. N. Sanyal (Additional Solicitor General) was constituted in 1961 . The recommendations, which the committee made, took note of the importance given to freedom of speech in the Constitution and of the need for safeguarding the status and dignity of courts and interests of administration of justice. Pursuant of Sanyal Committee Report, the Contempt of Courts Act was passed in 1971 .
Statement 2 is correct: Article 129 of the Constitution gives the Supreme Court the power to initiate contempt cases on its own, independent of the motion brought before it by the Attorney General (AG) or with the consent of the AG.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The expression ‘contempt of court’ has not been defined by the Constitution.
Statement 4 is correct: The Contempt of Court Act, 1971 defines both civil and criminal contempt. Hence the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws regarding contempt of court.

Indian Indian Polity> Judiciary

Q12. With reference to India, consider the following statements :

Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Answer: B

Advocate means a lawyer whose name has been entered in the State roll prepared and maintained by a state bar council under Section 17 of the Advocates Local Act., 1961 (25 of 1961) and who is a member of a State Bar Association or State Advocates Association . Whereas a Lawyer is any person who has completed the Degree of Law (whether 3 years LLB or 5 years Law course)
Statement 1 is Incorrect:
Legal firm is a group of association of Advocate and not an entity to be recognised as an Advocate.
An advocate cannot be a full-time salaried employee of any government, person, firm, corporation or concern, during the reign of his practice. Hence, any person be it company lawyer or patent Attorney on pay-roll, will not be recognised as an Advocate.
Statement 2 is Correct: Bar Council of India visits and inspects Universities/Law colleges in the country as part of its statutory function of promoting legal education and laying down standards in consultation with the Universities in India and the State Bar Councils.

Indian Polity > Judiciary

Q13. Consider the following statements :

A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.
An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president. The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is, more than 50 per cent) of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting.
Statement 2 is correct: After the 24th Constitutional Amendment 1967 , the President does not have the power to withhold his assent to the bill or return it for reconsideration of the Parliament, if the bill seeks to amend the Constitution.
Statement 3 is correct: Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed in each house by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the house and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the house present and voting. Each house must pass the bill separately. If there is any disagreement, there is no provision for joint sitting of the houses.

Indian Polity > Legislature

Q14. Consider the following statements :

The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Article 74 of the Constitution deals with the status of the council of ministers while Article 75 deals with the appointment, tenure, responsibility, qualification, oath and salaries and allowances of the ministers.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution does not classify the members of the Council of Ministers into different ranks. It has been done informally on the British pattern through executive order in India.
Statement 2 is correct: But as per the 91 st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 , Strength Of Council Of Ministers should not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.

Q15. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha ?

To ratify the declaration of Emergency
To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
To impeach the President of India

(a) 1 and 2

Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Article 352 (4) , it is the responsibility of the Parliament, not just Lok Sabha, to ratify proclamation of Emergency.
Statement 2 is correct: The Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible before the Lok Sabha. The Lok Sabha can cause the fall of the government by passing no confidence motion against the sitting government.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Under Article 61, process to remove the President, impeachment can be initiated by either house of the Parliament. Both houses are given equal powers in this regard.

Q16. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:

The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the Anti-Defection Law a nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House. This means a nominated member can join a political party within six months after being appointed in the house.
Statement 2 is correct: : The Anti Defection Law does not specify a time period for the Presiding Officer to decide on a disqualification plea. Hence, there is no specific time limit.

Indian Polity > Miscellaneous

Q17. Consider the following statements:

Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 76 of the Constitution only the Attorney General has the right to participate in the Parliamentary proceedings. This right is not extended to the Solicitor General of India.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Attorney General is not appointed by the Government. Instead, he is appointed by the President in consultation with the Government. However, traditionally, the Attorney General resigns from the office once the government resigns, as he is appointed on its advice.

Indian Polity > Executive

Q18. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

Answer: D

Mandamus (‘We command’) is one of five writs which are issued by courts in India (Supreme Court and High Courts). It is a command issued by the court to a public office/official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed to refuse to perform.
Quo Warranto (litt. ‘By what authority of warrant) is also one of five writs that are issued by courts in India. It is issued to enquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office (usually a constitutional or statutory office). This writ prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person.
against a private individual or body.
to enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force.
when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory to enforce a contractual obligation.
against the president of India or the state governors.
against the chief justice of a high court acting in a judicial capacity.
Statement 2 is correct: As per UPSC official answer key this statement is correct.
In India mandamus goes to all government departments and also local authorities like municipalities.”
Universities and other statutory bodies
Incorporated bodies like cooperative societies and joint stock companies.
Government companies.
Other private bodies on whom duties are imposed by statute.
The High Courts have taken diametrically opposing views. For instance, a few High Courts on the one hand have thought that the writ could go even to a government company. but a few others have held on the other hand that the writ may not be issued to a statutory corporation like the Life Insurance Corporation. The position in relation to the above bodies is examined seriatim.
Statement 3 is correct: The writ of Quo Warranto can only be issued in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character, that is created by a statute or by the Constitution. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office. Any interested person and not necessarily the aggrieved person can seek Quo Warranto writ.

Q19. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:

Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
It has seamless portability across the country.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Participation of healthcare institutions in Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission ( ABDM ) is voluntary . However, once a healthcare facility has registered with ABDM , every healthcare professional employed by that facility or institution must register himself/herself with Healthcare Professionals Registry so that the institution can become fully integrated with the National Digital Health Ecosystem ( NDHE ).
The mission has been conceptualised as a set of ‘ digital building blocks ’.
Each building block is seen as a ‘digital public good’ that can be used by any entity in the digital health ecosystem and provides key capabilities that enable the ABDM vision.
Statement 3 is correct: Creating seamless portability across various online platforms is one of the objectives of ABDM .

Economy > Human Economy

Q20. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :

As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4 only

Article 93 provides for the election of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker. The offices are regulated by constitutional provisions, Parliamentary Traditions and Conventions and Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business Rules.
Statement 1 is correct: The Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members right after the election of the Speaker has taken place.
The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker (date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President).
Statement 2 is incorrect: Deputy Speaker being from the principal opposition party, is a parliamentary convention and not mandatory. There is no written rule for such an arrangement.
Statement 3 is correct: Deputy Speaker acts as the presiding officer in case of leave or in absence caused by death or illness of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. While performing his duties as the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker enjoys the same powers and privileges as the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
Statement 4 is incorrect: There is no such practice of needing the Prime Minister as a seconder while moving motion for Deputy Speaker.

Importance of Solving Previous Years’ Question Paper

Candidates will better comprehend the present test format by resolving prelim question papers from prior years.
Examining the topics that matter more in terms of the exam is beneficial.
Candidates can assess the level of difficulty of the UPSC Exam paper, and it helps to keep track of changes to the format of the Prelims examination.
The ability to analyze oneself, concentrate on one’s areas of weakness, and develop a strategy that works for one’s needs is the best benefit of solving IAS problems from the previous year.

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UPSC 2022 Question Paper FAQs

Is upsc 2022 prelims tough.

Both the papers have negative markings. As per the UPSC Prelims Analysis, the overall level of the UPSC IAS Prelims questions paper was mixed as aspirants found economics questions to be tough while polity had direct questions.

Was prelims 2022 easy?

It was definitely tough and random than any year in recent years. good balance between current affairs and static portion.

How many questions asked in UPSC Prelims 2022?

A total of 200 questions was asked in UPSC Prelims 2022

How many students qualify UPSC Prelims 2022?

In 2022, out of 11.52 lakhs candidates who applied for UPSC 2022, only 13090 cleared the Prelims exam.

Who is rank 32 in UPSC 2022?

Nitin Singh has secured AIR 32 in the UPSC IAS Civil Services Examination 2022.

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How to self-evaluate your answer , mission – 2023: yearlong timetable, join ipm 4.0 to get an assured review of 2 secure answers everyday, general studies – 1.

Topic: Important Geophysical phenomena such as earthquakes, Tsunami, Volcanic activity, cyclone etc.,

1. Rivers worldwide face various threats that endanger their health and sustainability. Examine. Suggest measures to revive and restore rivers. (250 words)

Difficulty level: Tough

Reference: Down to Earth

Why the question: The once-mighty Rio Grande, which has formed the border of the United States and Mexico since the end of the Mexican-American War in the 1840s, is America’s ‘most endangered river’ along with three others, a non-profit dedicated to conservation of US rivers has said. Key Demand of the question: To write about the causes for endangerment of rivers and measures needed to revive them. Structure of the answer: Introduction: Begin by giving context, Body: First, write about the causes that have endangered rivers across the world – pollution, deforestation, dams, over-extraction, climate change, and invasive species. Next, write about the measures needed to revive them – regulations, water treatment, sustainable land use, dam management, climate resilience, invasive species control, and public engagement Conclusion: Conclude by writing a way forward.

General Studies – 2

Topic: India and its neighborhood- relations.

2. While the South China Sea holds strategic importance for India, navigating the complex geopolitical dynamics and managing challenges posed by Chinese assertiveness require a careful and nuanced approach. Elaborate. (250 words)

Difficulty level: Moderate

Reference: The Hindu , Insights on India

Why the question: New Delhi’s strategic recalibration recognises the South China Sea’s critical importance to regional security and the global maritime order. Key Demand of the question: To write about the importance of South China sea to India and bottlenecks it faces in the region. Directive word: Elaborate – Give a detailed account as to how and why it occurred, or what is the context. You must be defining key terms wherever appropriate and substantiate with relevant associated facts. Structure of the answer: Introduction: Bring out the historic context of South China Sea. Body: In the first part of the body, write about the strategic importance of South China sea for India – vital maritime trade route, economic interests in energy exploration, and security concerns for maintaining stability and freedom of navigation etc. Next, write about the bottlenecks it faces in the region – Chinese assertiveness, limited naval presence, diplomatic balancing, and legal constraints in engaging with the region etc. Next, write about careful diplomacy and strategic manoeuvring to safeguard India’s interests while promoting regional stability. Conclusion: Conclude with a way forward.

General Studies – 3

Topic: Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization, of resources, growth, development and employment.

3. What measures can India take to enhance its export performance amidst global instability, and how might these strategies help mitigate risks and sustain economic growth? (250 words)

Reference: The Hindu

Why the question: India’s merchandise exports hit a 12-month peak of $41.7 billion last month, marginally lower than March 2023 and a tad higher than February’s $41.4 billion figure. Key Demand of the question: To write about the reasons for declining India’s exports and suggest measures to improve it amidst uncertainty. Structure of the answer: Introduction: Begin the answer by giving context to India’s export performance. Body: First, write about the reasons for the declining trends in Indian exports. Next, write about the steps that are needed to overcome the above slump– emphasising on export competitiveness, focus on small and labour-intensive firms and removing supply chain bottlenecks etc. Conclusion: Conclude with a way forward.

Topic: Awareness in the fields of IT, Space, Computers, robotics, Nano-technology, biotechnology and issues relating to intellectual property rights.

4. Throw light on the different types of cloud services and analyse the opportunities and challenges associated with cloud computing. (250 words)

Difficulty level: Easy

Reference: Insights on India

Why the question: The question is part of the static syllabus of General studies paper – 3 and mentioned as part of Mission-2024 Secure timetable. Key Demand of the question: To write about the different type of cloud services, opportunities and challenges associated with it. Directive word: Analyse – When asked to analyse, you must examine methodically the structure or nature of the topic by separating it into component parts and present them in a summary. Structure of the answer: Introduction: Briefly by defining cloud computing. Body: First, write about the different type of cloud services – Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), and Software as a Service (SaaS). Next, write about the opportunities offered by cloud computing – cost savings, scalability, flexibility, and improved efficiency etc and mention various initiatives taken by the government to promote it. Next, write about the challenges associated with cloud computing – data privacy and security concerns, vendor lock-in, and issues related to service availability and reliability etc. Conclusion: Conclude by writing a forward.

5. Explain the various kinds of satellite orbits initiated from Earth and analyse the potential risks related to unmanaged rocket re-entry into the Earth’s orbit. (250 words)

Why the question: The question is part of the static syllabus of General studies paper – 3 and mentioned as part of Mission-2024 Secure timetable. Key Demand of the question: To write about various types of orbits and issues associated with uncontrolled re-entry of rockets Directive word: Examine – When asked to ‘Examine’, we must investigate the topic (content words) in detail, inspect it, investigate it and establish the key facts and issues related to the topic in question. While doing so we should explain why these facts and issues are important and their implications. Structure of the answer: Introduction: Begin by defining an orbit. Body: First, write about different types of orbit for satellite launches from earth and their functions. Draw a small representative diagram of the same – Geostationary orbit (GEO), Low Earth orbit (LEO), Medium Earth orbit (MEO), Polar orbit and Sun-synchronous orbit (SSO), Transfer orbits and geostationary transfer orbit (GTO) and Lagrange points (L-points) Next, in detail, write about the uncontrolled re-entries of rockets into the earth’s orbit and issues associated with it. Next, write about the measures needed to overcome the above issues. Conclusion: Conclude with a way forward.

General Studies – 4

Topic: Human Values – lessons from the lives and teachings of great leaders, reformers and administrators;

6. What does this quote means to you? (150 words)

“Integrity is not a conditional word. It doesn’t blow in the wind or change with the weather. It is your inner image of yourself, and if you look in there and see a man who won’t cheat, then you know he never will.” – John D. MacDonald

Why the question: The question is part of the static syllabus of General studies paper – 4. Structure of the answer: Introduction: Begin by explaining the literal meaning of the quote and the context in which it was said. Body: Write about integrity is a core value that is not subject to change based on external circumstances. It’s not something that can be turned on or off depending on the situation. Rather, it’s a reflection of one’s inner character and values. Cite examples to substantiate. Conclusion: Summarise by highlighting the importance of this quote in this present day.

Topic: Work culture, Quality of service delivery,

7. What are the factors that create and maintain a culture of ethical behaviour at the workplace? Recognizing and rewarding ethical behaviour can reinforce a culture of ethics. Discuss. (150 words)

Why the question: The question is part of the static syllabus of General studies paper – 4. Key Demand of the question: To write about components of ethical workplace culture and ways to build it. Structure of the answer: Introduction: Start by describing an ethical work culture. Body: Write about the major factors that create and maintain a culture of ethical behaviour – leadership, organizational structure, policies and procedures, training and communication, rewards and recognition, organizational values, and industry norms and regulations. Next, write about ways to build ethical workplace culture and environment. Conclusion: Conclude by summarising.

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Why the question: The question is part of the static syllabus of General studies paper - 3 and mentioned as part of Mission-2024 Secure timetable. Key Demand of the question: To write about the different type of cloud services, opportunities and challenges associated with it. Directive word:

UPSC Essay Topic wise Question Papers of last 31 years (1993-2023) for Civil Services IAS/IPS Exam Free Download

1.1 India Since Independence

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UPSC 2022 Question Paper with Detailed Explanation of Prelims

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Q1. “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following ?

Q2. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements :

Q3. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements :