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[UPSC Mains 2021] ESSAY PAPER- UPSC CIVIL SERVICES MAINS EXAM (CSE) 2021

• January 7, 2022

Important Updates , UPSC MAINS 2021 QUESTION PAPERS

1) The process of self-discovery has now been technologically outsourced.

2)  Your perception of me is a reflection of you; my reaction to you is an awareness of me.

3) Philosophy of wantlessness is Utopian, while materialism is a chimera.

4)  The real is rational and the rational is real

1) Hand that rocks the cradle rules the world

2)  What is research, but a blind date with knowledge!

3) History repeats itself, first as a tragedy, second as a farce.

4)  There are better practices to ‘best practices’.

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• Essay Paper 2021 , UPSC Mains Essay paper 2021 , UPSC Mains-2021: ESSAY PAPER- UPSC CIVIL SERVICES MAINS EXAM 2021

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[Download pdf] UPSC IAS Mains 2021 – Essay Question Paper

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Dear Friends,

UPSC Mains 2021 has been commenced today and the essay paper has been completed. You can view the UPSC IAS Mains 2021 Essay Question Paper in the text format and in the picture given below that.

UPSC Mains 2021 Essay Question Paper – Download pdf

The process of self-discovery has now been technologically outsourced.

Your perception of me is a reflection of you; my reaction to you is an awareness of me.

Philosophy of wantlessness is Utopian, while materialism is a chimera.

The real is rational and the rational is real.

Hand that rocks the cradle rules the world.

What is research, but a blind date with knowledge!

History repeats itself, first as a tragedy, second as a farce.

There are better practices to “best practices”.

UPSC IAS Mains 2021 Essay Question Paper 

To access Previous Year Question Paper – Click Here 

Previous Year UPSC Mains Papers

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UPSC Prelims 2021 Question Paper – General Studies Paper 1

Last updated on October 13, 2021 by ClearIAS Team

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) has conducted the Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2021 General Studies Paper 1 on 10th October from 9.30 AM – 11.30 AM.

As the General Studies Paper 1 exam is over, aspirants can download all sets of Question Papers ie. A, B, C, and D versions.

If you need detailed answer keys for this exam, check UPSC Prelims 2021 Answer Key by ClearIAS.

Table of Contents

About UPSC Civil Services Examination (CSE) 2021

Civil Services Examination (CSE) is conducted to select the best brains in the country for prestigious posts like IAS ,  IPS , IFS etc.  UPSC  is responsible for conducting this exam.

About 11 lakh candidates had registered for Civil Services Examination (CSE) 2021.

About UPSC Prelims 2021 Question Paper – General Studies Paper 1

General Studies Paper 1 includes questions from subjects like History, Geography, Polity, Economics, General Science, Technology, Environment and Current Affairs.

• This paper is objective in nature (100 MCQs in 2 hours).
• Each question is of 2 marks. -0.66 marks will be deducted as negative marks for each wrong answer.
• The maximum marks for General Studies Paper 1 are 200.

100 Questions Asked in UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2021 – Paper 1

1. With reference to the history of ancient India, Bhavabhutti, Hastimalla and Kshemeshwara were famous a) Jain monks b) Playwrights c) temple architects d) philosophers

2. Consider the following statements:

i) The Montague-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 recommended granting voting rights to all women above the age of 21. ii) The Government of India Act of 1935 gave women reserved seats in the legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. With reference to 8th August 1942 in Indian History, which one of the following statements is correct? a) The Quit India Resolution was adopted by AICC b) The Viceroy’s Executive Council was expanded to include more Indians. c) The Congress ministries resigned in seven provinces. d) Cripps proposed an Indian Union with full Dominion Status once the Second World War was over.

4. Which among the following is associated with ‘’Songs from Prison’’, a translation of ancient Indian religious lyrics in English?

a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak b) Jawaharlal Nehru c) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi d) Sarojini Naidu

5. With reference to medieval India, which one of the following is the correct sequence in ascending order in terms of size? a) Paragana-Sarkar-Suba b) Sarkar-Paragana-Suba c) Suba-Sarkar-Paragana d) Paragana-Suba-Sarkar

6. Who among the following was associated as Secretary with Hindu Female School which later came to be known as Bethune Female School? a) Annie Besant b) Debendranath Tagore c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar d) Sarojini Naidu

7. In the context of Colonial India, Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Kumar Sehgal and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillion are remembered as

a) Leaders of Swadeshi and Boycott Movement b) Members of the Interim Government in 1946 c) Members of the Drafting Committee in the Constituent Assembly d) Officers of the Indian National Army

8. With reference to Indian History, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Nizamat of Arcot emerged out of Hyderabad State 2. The Mysore Kingdom emerged out of Vijayanagara Empire 3. Rohilkhand Kingdom was formed out of the territories occupied by Ahmad Shah Durani

Select the correct answer using the code given below a) 1 and 2 b) 2 only c) 2 and 3 d) 3 only

9. Which one of the following statements is correct? a) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of Waghora river. b) Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of Chambal river. c) Pandu-lena Cave Shrines lie in the gorge of Narmada River. d) Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of Godavari river.

10. Consider the following statements: 1. 21st February is declared to be International Mother Language Day by UNICEF. 2. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

11. With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: 1. It is a circular temple built during the reign of Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. 2. It is the only circular temple built in India 3. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. 4. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 4 d) 2, 3 and 4

12. Which one of the following ancient towns is well-known for its elaborate system of water harvesting and management by building a series of dams and channelizing water into connected reservoirs? a) Dholavira b) Kalibangan c) Rakhigarhi d) Ropar

13. In the first quarter of the seventeenth century, in which of the following was/were the factory/factories of the English East India Company located? 1. Broach 2. Chicacole 3. Trichinopoly

Select the correct answer using the code given below. a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 c) 3 only d) 2 and 3

14. From the decline of Guptas until the rise of Harshavardhana in the early seventh century, which of the following kingdoms were holding power in Northern India? 1. The Guptas of Magadha 2. The Paramaras of Malwa 3. The Pushyabutis of Thanesar 4. The Yadavas of Devagiri 5. The Yadavas of Devagiri 6. The Maitrakas of Valabhi

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1, 2 and 5 b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 c) 2, 3 and 4 d) 5 and 6

15. According to Portuguese writer Nuniz, the women in Vijayanagar Empire were experts in which of the following areas? 1. Wrestling 2. Astrology 3. Accounting 4. Soothsaying

Select the correct answer using the code given below

a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only c) 2 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

16. With reference to Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh, which one of the following statements is correct?

a) Pingali Venkaya designed the tricolour Indian National Flag here. b) Pattabhi Sitaramaiah led the Quit India Movement of the Andhra region from here. c) Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem from Bengali to English here. d) Madam Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott set up headquarters of Theosophical Society first here.

17. Consider the following pairs:

Historical place : Well-known for

1. Burzahom : Rock-cut shrines 2. Chandra-ketugargh : Terracotta art 3. Ganeshwar : Copper artefacts Which of the pairs given above is correctly matched? a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 c) 3 only d) 2 and 3

18. Consider the following statements

1. It was during the reign of Iltumish that Chengiz Khan reached the Indus in pursuit of the fugitive Khwarezm prince. 2. It was during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughlaq that Taimur occupied Multan and crossed the Indus. 3. It was during the reign of Deva Raya II of Vijayanagara Empire that Vasco da Gama reached the coast of Kerala.

a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 c) 3 only d) 2 and 3

19. Consider the following statements:

1. St.Francis Xavier was one of the founding members of the Jesuit Order 2. St.Francis Xavier died in Goa and a church is dedicated to him there 3. The Feast of St.Francis Xavier is celebrated in Goa each year.

Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

20. With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Mitakshara was the civil law for upper castes and Dayabhaga was the civil law for lower castes. 2. In the Mitakshara system, the sons can claim the right to the property during the lifetime of the father whereas, in the Dayabhaga system, it is only after the death of the father that the sons can claim the right to the property. 3. The Mitakshara system deals with the matters related to the property held by male members only of a family, whereas the Dayabhaga system deals with the matters related to the property held by both male and female members of a family. Select the correct answer using the code given below. a) 1 and 2 b) 2 only c) 1 and 3 d) 3 only

21. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?

a) Increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio in the banks. b) Increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio in the banks c) Increase in the banking habit of the people d) Increase in the population of the country

22. With reference to Indian economy, demand-pull inflation can be caused/increased by which of the following?

1. Expansionary policies 2. Fiscal stimulus 3. Inflation-indexing wages 4. Higher purchasing power 5. Rising interest rates

Select the correct answer using the code given below. a) 1, 2 and 4 only b) 3, 4 and 5 only c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

23. With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. Retail investors through demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in primary market 2. The ‘’Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching’’ is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. 3. The ‘’Central Depository Services Ltd’’ is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 c) 3 only d) 2 and 3

24. With reference to ‘’Water Credit”, consider the following statements:

1. It puts microfinance tools to work in the water and sanitation sector. 2. It is a global initiative launched under the aegis of the World Health Organization and the World Bank. 3. It aims to enable the poor people to meet their water needs without depending on subsidies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

25. In India, the central bank’s function as the ‘’lender of last resort’’ usually refers to which of the following?

1. Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources 2. Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis 3. Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits

26. ‘’R2 Code of Practices’’ constitute a tool available for promoting the adoption of

a) Environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry b) Ecological management of ‘’Wetlands of International Importance” under the Ramsar Convention c) Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands d) ‘’Environmental Impact Assessment’’ in the exploitation of natural resources

27. Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants?

1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into the environment 2. The copper slag can cause the leaching pf some heavy metals into the environment 3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant

28. With reference to furnace oil, consider the following statements:

1. It is a product of oil refineries 2. Some industries use it to generate power 3. Its use causes sulphur emissions into the environment

29. What is blue carbon?

a) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems b) Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and agricultural soils c) Carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas d) Carbon present in the atmosphere

30. In nature, which of the following is/are most likely to be found surviving on a surface without soil? 1. Fern 2. Lichen 3. Moss 4. Mushroom

a) 1 and 4 only b) 2 only c) 2 and 3 d) 1, 3 and 4

31. Consider the following statements:

1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government. 2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest. 3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act.

Which of the above statements are correct?

32. With reference to the casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements:

1. All casual workers are entitled for employees Provident Fund Coverage 2. All casual workers are entitled for regular working hours and overtime payment 3. The government can by a notification specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account.

Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

33. Which among the following steps is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession? a) Cut in tax rates accompanied by increase in interest rate b) Increase in expenditure on public projects c) Increase in tax rates accompanied by reduction of interest rate d) Reduction of expenditure on public projects

34. Consider the following statements

Other things remaining unchanged, market demand for a good might increase if

1. Price of its substitute increases 2. Price of its complement increases 3. The good is an inferior good and income of the consumers increases 4. Its price falls

Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1 and 4 only b) 2, 3 and 4 c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 3

35. With reference to Urban Cooperative Banks in India, consider the following statements:

1. They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments. 2. They can issue equity shares and preference shares. 3. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through an Amendment in 1996 Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

36. Indian Government Bond yields are influenced by which of the following?

1. Actions of the United States Federal Reserve 2. Actions of the Reserve Bank of India 3. Inflation and short-term interest rates.

Select the correct answer using the code given below a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

37. Consider the following:

1. Foreign currency convertible bonds 2. Foreign institutional investment with certain conditions 3. Global depository receipts 4. Non-resident external deposits

Which of the above can be included in Foreign Direct Investments?

a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 3 only c) 2 and 4 d) 1 and 4

38. Consider the following statements:

The effect of devaluation of a currency is that it necessarily

1. Improves the competitiveness of the domestic exports in the foreign markets 2. Increase the foreign value of domestic currency 3. Improves the trade balance

Which of the above statements is/are

39. Which one of the following effects of creation of black money in India has been the main cause of worry to the Government of India?

a) Diversion of resources to the purchase of real estate and investment in luxury housing b) Investment in unproductive activities and purchase of precious stones, jewellery, gold etc. c) Large donations to political parties and growth of regionalism d) Loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax evasion

40. Which one of the following is likely to be one of the most inflationary in its effects?

a) Repayment of public debt b) Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit c) Borrowing from the banks to finance a budget deficit d) Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit

41. Which one of the following is used in preparing a natural mosquito repellent?

a) Congress grass b) Elephant grass c) Lemon grass d) Nut grass

42. Consider the following kinds of organisms: 1. Copepods 2. Cyanobacteria 3. Diatoms 4. Foraminifera

Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans? a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 3 and 4 d) 1 and 4

43. Consider the following animals 1. Hedgehog 2. Marmot 3. Pangolin To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protect its/their vulnerable parts? a) 1 and 2 b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 3

44. With reference to the ‘’New York Declaration on Forests’’, which of the following statements are correct?

1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014 2. It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests 3. It is a legally binding international declaration 4. It is endorsed by governments, big companies and indigenous communities. 5. India was one of the signatories at its inception

Select the correct answer using the code given below a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 1, 3 and 5 c) 3 and 4 d) 2 and 5

45. Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems are generated as environmental pollutants from which of the following?

1. Brakes of motor vehicles 2. Engines of motor vehicles 3. Microwave stoves within homes 4. Power plants 5. Telephone lines

Select the correct answer using the code given below a) 1, 2, 3 and 5only b) 1, 2 and 4 only c) 3, 4 and 5 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

46. Which one of the following is a filter feeder?

a) Catfish b) Octopus c) Oyster d) Pelican

47. In the case of which of the following biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrients to enter the cycle? a) Carbon cycle b) Nitrogen cycle c) Phosphorus cycle d) Sulphur cycle

48. Which of the following are detritivores?

1. Earthworms 2. Jellyfish 3. Seahorse 4. Woodlice Select the correct answer using the code given below a) 1, 2 and 4 only b) 2, 3, 4 and 4 only c) 1, 3 and 5 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

49. The ‘’Common Carbon Metric’’ supported by UNEP, has been developed for

a) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world b) Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading c) Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries d) Assessing the overall carbon foot-print caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit time

50. Which of the following have species that can establish a symbiotic relationship with other organisms?

1. Cnidarians 2. Fungi 3. Protozoa

Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

51. Under the Indian constitution concentration of wealth violates (a) The right to equality (b) The Directive Principles of State Policy (C) The Right to freedom (d) the Concept of Welfare

52. What is the position of the Right to Property in India? (a) Legal right available to citizens only (b) Legal right available to any person (C) Fundamental Right available to citizens only (d) Neither fundamental Right nor legal right.

53. What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950? (a) A democratic Republic (b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic (C) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic (d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

54. Constitutional government means. (a) a representative government of a nation with federal structure (b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers (C) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers (d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

55. With reference to India, the terms ‘halbi, Ho and Kui” pertain to (a) dance forms of Northwest India (b) musical Instruments (C) pre-historic cave paintings (d) tribal languages

56. Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. (a) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. (b) Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. (C) The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements are not correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

57. Consider the following statements: Statement 1: The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World Statement 2: Hyderabad was selected for the recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the Urban forests. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1 (b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct. (d) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct.

58. Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000: 1. American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award. 2. The award was received mostly by ‘Formula One ‘Players so far. 3. Roger Federer received this award maximum number of times compared to others. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

59. Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: 1. The official motto for the Olympics is ‘A New World’ 2. Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate and Baseball are included in this Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

60. Consider the following statements in respect of the ICC World Test Championship: 1. The finalists were decided by the number of matches they won. 2. New Zealand was ranked ahead of England because it won more matches than England. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

61. Consider the following statements: 1. ‘Right to the City’ is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard. 2. ‘Right to the City’ gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim public spaces and public participation in the city. 3. ‘Right to the City’ means that the State cannot deny any public service or facility to the unauthorised colonies in the city. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3

62. With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail. 2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

63. With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right. 2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

64. At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006? (a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climatic change. (b) Ministry of Panchayat Raj (C) Ministry of Rural Development (d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

65. A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of the application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India? (a) Article 14 (b) Article 28 (C) Article 32 (d) Article 44

66. Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character? (a) The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded (b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units. (C) the Union cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties (d) The Fundamental rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.

67. Which one of the following best defines the term “State”? (a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government. (b) A politically organized people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance. (C) A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government. (d) A society permanently living in a definite with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary.

68. With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements. 1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India. 2. A High court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

69. With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile. 2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State. 3. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (C) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3

70. Which of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy? (a) A committed judiciary (b) Centralization of powers (C) Elected government (d) Separation of powers.

Q71. The vegetation of savannah consists of grassland with scattered small trees. The forest development in such areas is generally kept in check by one or more or a combination of some conditions. Which of the following are such conditions? 1. Burrowing animals and termites. 2. Fire 3. Grazing herbivores 4. Seasonal rainfall 5. Soil properties Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and2 (b) 4 and 5 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 5

Q72. With reference to the water on the planet Earth, consider the following statements: 1. The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is more than the amount of groundwater. 2. The amount of water I n polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q73. Consider the following statements: 1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree. 2. Tamarind tree is endemic to south Asia. 3. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce. 4. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa. 5. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (b) 3, 4 and 5 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1,2, 3 and 5

Q74. The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering of (a) Brown forest soil (b) Fissure volcanic rock (c) Granite and schist (d) Shale and limestone

Q75. With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: 1. Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. 2. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q76. In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements: 1. Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of egg. 2. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from mother and not from father. Which of the statements given above is’/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q77. Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies are mentioned in the context of (a) Clonal propagation of crop plants (b) Developing genetically modified crop plants (c) Production of plant growth substances (d) Production of biofertilizers

Q78. In a pressure cooker, the temperature at which the food is cooked depends mainly upon which of the following? 1. Area of the hole in the lid 2. Temperature of the flame 3. Weight of the lid Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3

Q79. Consider the following: 1. Bacteria 2. Fungi 3. Virus Which of the above can be cultured in an artificial/ synthetic medium? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3

Q80. Consider the following statements: 1. Adenoviruses have single-stranded DNA genomes whereas retroviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes. 2. Common cold is sometimes caused by an adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a retrovirus. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q81. How is permaculture farming different from conventional chemical farming? 1. Permaculture farming discourages monocultural practices but in conventional chemical farming, monoculture practices are predominant. 2. Conventional chemical farming can cause increase in soil salinity but the occurrence of such phenomenon is not observed in permaculture farming. 3. Conventional chemical farming is easily possible in such regions. 4. Practice of mulching is very important in permaculture farming but not necessarily so in conventional chemical farming. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 4 only (d) 2 and 3

Q82 With reference to ‘palm oil’, consider the following statements: (a) The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia. (b) The palm oil is a raw material for some industries producing lipstick and perfumes. (c) The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q83. With reference to the Indus River system, of the following four rivers, three of them pour into one of the which joins the Indus direct. Among the following, which one is such river that joins the Indus direct? (a) Chenab (b) Jhelum (c) Ravi (d) Sutlej

Q84. With references to India, Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and khatu are the names of (a) Glaciers (b) Mangrove areas (c) Ramsar sites (d) Saline lakes

Q85. Consider the following Rivers: 1. Brahmani 2. Nagavali 3. Subarnarekha 4. Vamsadhara Which of the above rise from the Eastern Ghats? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

Q86. Consider the following statements: 1. The Global Ocean Commission grants licenses for seabed exploration and mining in international waters. 2. India has received licenses for seabed mineral exploration in international waters. 3. ‘Rare earth minerals’ are present on the seafloor in international waters. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q87. Among the following, which one is the least water-efficient crop? (a) Sugarcane (b) Sunflower (c) Pearl millet (d) Red gram

Q88. Consider the following statements: 1. In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds. 2. In the temperate Zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 and 2

Q89. In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-smart Agriculture, consider the following statements : 1. The ‘Climate-Smart village’ approach in India is a part of a project led by climate change, Agriculture and food security (CCAFS), an international research programme. 2. The project of CCAFS is carried out under Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France. 3. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’S research centers. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3

Q90. “Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any other biome and as a result the soil surface is often almost bare. Apart from trees, the vegetation is largely composed of plant forms that reach up into the canopy vicariously, by climbing the trees or growing as epiphytes, rooted on the upper branches of trees.” This is the most likely descriptions of (a) Coniferous forest (b) Dry deciduous forest (c) Mangrove forest (d) Tropical rain forest

91. Water can dissolve more substances than any other liquid because. (a) It is dipolar in nature. (b) It is a good conductor of heat (c) It has high value of specific heat (d) It is an oxide of hydrogen

92. With reference to street-lighting, how do sodium lamps differ from LED lamps? 1. Sodium lamps produce light in 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of LED lamps. 2. As street-lights, sodium lamps have longer life span than LED lamps. 3.The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer significant colour advantages in street-lighting. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

93. The term ‘ACE2” is talked about in the context of (a) genes introduced in the genetically modified plants (b) development of India’s own satellite navigation system (c) radio collars for wildlife tracking (d) spread of viral diseases

94. Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics? (a) Low-density polyethylene (b) Polycarbonate (c) Polyethylene terephthalate (d) Polyvinyl Chloride.

95. ‘Triclosan” considered harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most likely present in which of the following? (a) Food preservatives (b) Fruit ripening substances (c) reused plastic containers (d) Toiletries.

Q96. Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distance are measured in light-years? (a) Distance among stellar bodies do not change. (b) Gravity of stellar bodies does not change. (c) Light always travels in straight line. (d) Speed of light is always same.

Q97. We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model? 1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the parliament to legislate is limited. 2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q98 With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: 1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyenger Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it. 2. In 1970, the Department of personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q99. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the constitution of India? (a) Article 15 (b) Article 19 (c) Article 21 (d) Article 29

Q100. Consider the following statements: 1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies. 2. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies. 3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3

Analysis of UPSC Prelims 2021 Question Paper – General Studies Paper 1

Traditional coaching methods or preparation may not help candidates. As advocated by ClearIAS many times before, the UPSC CSE pattern has changed a lot in the last couple of years. The exam needs a new approach. We have elaborated our smart approach in various initiatives of the ClearIAS Online Classroom Program like the ClearIAS Prelims Marks Booster Program. Many aspirants called and emailed us that the ClearIAS approach was unique and very effective in Prelims.

Casual aspirants who rely on cheap materials circulated in telegram groups or YouTube channels too may have found this year’s exam beyond their reach or understanding.

Our analysis of the paper:

• Overall Difficulty Level: Moderately tough paper with unconventional questions from certain subjects like History.
• Difficult Areas : Indian History
• Moderate Difficulty : Science and Technology, Geography
• Easy Areas : Indian Polity, Indian Economy
• Many questions could have been solved from Previous Year UPSC Question Papers (Eg: Constitutional Government, Money Multiplier etc)
• Many questions could have been solved from ClearIAS Prelims Test Series .
• Many questions could have been solved from the ClearIAS Prelims Marks Booster Classes .
• There was a lot of scope of application of ClearIAS Intelligent Elimination Techniques (IETs) .
• In many cases, aspirants were able to eliminate two options and arrive at 50-50 cases. This itself increases the probability of success.
• Sports got prominence in 2-3 questions from the current affairs area. This section was absent for many years.

Regarding ClearIAS Answer Key for UPSC CSE 2021

We have updated UPSC CSE 2021 Prelims questions with answers .

As you know, there can be minor variations with the official UPSC key (which will take a long time to come out).

We are open to updating the above answer key if any aspirant brings logical arguments to support any variations. Please drop an email to ClearIAS with your answers and explanations for ambiguous questions.

Please refresh the page (Ctrl+F5) so that you will get updated questions and answers.

Let us know your marks and feedback on ClearIAS programs through email.

To check previous year cut-off marks, click here .

All the best!

Download UPSC Prelims 2021 Question Paper – General Studies Paper 1 (PDF)

Click the below link to download UPSC CSE Prelims 2021 Question Paper as PDF (Version B).

What should I do next: Prepare for UPSC CSE 2021 or 2022?

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UPSC Mains 2021 Question Papers

The UPSC Mains Examination has been scheduled to be conducted from 7th January 2022 to 16th January 2022. The candidates who have cleared the Preliminary exam 2021 which was held on October 10, 2021, would appear in the next level of the recruitment process, that is, Civil Services (Main) Examination. 

It is to be noted that the marks obtained in the IAS Exam Prelims by the candidates will not be counted for determining their final order of merit. 

The Civil Services (Main) Written Examination will consist of 9 papers of conventional essay type in the subjects out of which two papers will be of qualifying in nature. The marks obtained for all the compulsory papers (Paper-I to Paper-VII) and Marks obtained in the Interview/Personality Test will be counted for ranking.

The aspirants can download the UPSC IAS 2021 Mains question papers PDF from this page. 

Note – The exams are yet to take place. The PDFs will be available shortly.

Meanwhile, to download the 2020, 2019 UPSC Mains Previous Year Question Papers , visit the linked article.  

Download UPSC CSE 2021 Mains GS Question Papers PDF

The candidates can download the IAS Mains 2021 GS papers from the following links. The link will be activated once the question papers are officially released by the commission on the official website. 

Download UPSC Mains 2021 Essay Paper PDF

The candidates would be required to write essays on multiple topics. The candidates are expected to keep closely to the subject of the essay to arrange their ideas in an orderly fashion and to write concisely. The essay paper is not just qualifying in nature but will be counted for the merit ranking. 

Therefore, the aspirants can download the Essay Paper and Compulsory English Language Paper from below:

• UPSC Mains 2021 Essay Paper PDF

Download UPSC Mains 2021 Language Papers

• UPSC Mains 2021 Compulsory English Paper

The aspirants can download the compulsory Indian language papers from the links below:

For more information, check out UPSC Mains 2021 Indian Language Papers from the linked article. 

Download UPSC 2021 Mains Optional Papers PDF

The candidates have to choose any one of the optional subjects from amongst the list of subjects prescribed by the commission. 

The candidates can also choose Literature of any one of the following languages as their optional subject. 

Also, check out UPSC Mains 2021 Optional Paper from the linked article.

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Resolution condemning Hinduphobia

The Georgia Assembly (USA) passed a resolution condemning Hinduphobia, becoming the first state in the US to do so. The legislation acknowledges the contributions of the American Hindu community and condemns the “ antagonistic, destructive, and derogatory attitudes and behaviours ” towards Hindus that may manifest as prejudice, fear or hatred.

What is Hinduphobia?

  Hinduphobia is a term used to describe a set of attitudes and behaviours characterized by prejudice, fear, hatred, or antagonism towards Hinduism and Hindus. It can manifest in many forms, such as discrimination, stereotyping, and violence against individuals or communities of Hindu origin.

Usage : The example can be used in Indian society/ethics/essay paper to show discriminatory societal attitudes and stereotyping esp. in developed countries.

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